One for all the Maths brains out there...

[Dark Neighbour]

alright, here goes...

x squared = x squared yes?
that means that...
x(x-x)=(x+x)(x-x)
the 2 (x-x)'s cancel each other out...
so it becomes....
x=(x+x)
now we expand it...
x=2x...
so therefore...
1=2

how can this be possible? try and work it out...

if it didn't make sense to you at all, then ill edit it for you...

[johnny blaze]

I have no clue. I suck at the math. Also, all I do in math is draw.

[Solitude]

x(x-x) = x into 0 = 0
(x+x)(x-x)= (x+x) into 0 = 0

[Ace]

Originally posted by Bad Neighbour
alright, here goes...

x squared = x squared yes?
that means that...
x(x-x)=(x+x)(x-x)
the 2 (x-x)'s cancel each other out...
so it becomes....
x=(x+x)
now we expand it...
x=2x...
so therefore...
1=2

how can this be possible? try and work it out...

if it didn't make sense to you at all, then ill edit it for you...

(x-x) = 0. So you are dividing by 0 here:

x(x-x)=(x+x)(x-x)

You may NEVER divide by 0.

reason:

To divide a number by another number, means to find another number such that the first number times the second number equals the third number.

This also means that if:

12/4 = 3, that 3*4 = 12, which it is.

0 * 0 = 0
1 * 0 = 0
2 * 0 = 0
etc...

The first part of what I said earlier is true with 0/0 = 0, but the problem lies with the 2nd part which has more then just one answer .

edit:

Just found something nice on google.

Dividing by Zero Can Get You into Trouble! If we persist in retaining such errata in our educational texts, an unwitting or unscrupulous person could utilize the result to show that 1 = 2 as follows:

(a).(a) - a.a = a2 - a2

for any finite a. Now, factoring by a, and using the identity
(a2 - b2) = (a - b)(a + b) for the other side, this can be written as:

a(a-a) = (a-a)(a+a)

dividing both sides by (a-a) gives

a = 2a

now, dividing by a gives

1 = 2, Voila!

This result follows directly from the assumption that it is a legal operation to divide by zero because a - a = 0. If one divides 2 by zero even on a simple, inexpensive calculator, the display will indicate an error condition.

Again, I do emphasis, the question in this Section goes beyond the fallacy that 2/0 is infinity or not. It demonstrates that one should never divide by zero [here (a-a)]. If one does allow oneself dividing by zero, then one ends up in a hell. That is all.

Source: http://home.ubalt.edu/ntsbarsh/zero/ZERO.HTM#rdivzerotr

[Josh]

Ace is right. You can't do (x-x)/(x-x). That is dividing by zero. So it is 0=0.

[Solitude]

err.yeah /0=not possible.
sheeesh,can't believe i forgot that.just had a maths exam today.
sin90/cos90=1/0=tan90=not possible

[Xaenn]

When I first looked at that the way it was explained and the notation bad due to the computer made it VERY confusing.

It looks like everyone figured it out before I got here...Oh well.

You can't divide by zero because if you were to do so it would change the value to infinity (although infinity isn't really a value) and then the equation wouldn't be true because you did something irreversable...

[MasJ]

Actually, technically, any number divided by zero is infinity.
Because zero*infinity=a finite number.
Multiplying a finite by zero, is, ofcourse, zero.

[Roux!]

Originally posted by Bad Neighbour
alright, here goes...

x squared = x squared yes?
that means that...
x(x-x)=(x+x)(x-x)
the 2 (x-x)'s cancel each other out...
so it becomes....
x=(x+x)
now we expand it...
x=2x...
so therefore...
1=2

how can this be possible? try and work it out...

if it didn't make sense to you at all, then ill edit it for you...

I don't know what you were trying to pull here, but you got it wrong...

x ( x - x ) = ( x * x ) - ( x * x ) NOT ( x + x )( x - x )
x ( 0 ) = x^2 - x^2
0 = 0

How hard can that be...?

[Urn]

Im pretty good at math...

What means

x squared = x squared yes? that means that... x(x-x)=(x+x)(x-x)

??????????
x^2=x^2 true

but
x(x-x)=(x+x)(x-x)[/QUOTE]
^^^ bullshit. x <> (x+x)

BTW. U MAY delete by zero. But result is infinity, endlessness, eternity (dunno how in english).

[Ace]

Originally posted by Urn
Im pretty good at math...

What means



??????????
x^2=x^2 true

but
x(x-x)=(x+x)(x-x)
^^^ bullshit. x <> (x+x)

BTW. U MAY delete by zero. But result is infinity, endlessness, eternity (dunno how in english).

x*(x-x) = (x+x)*(x-x)
x * 0 = 2x * 0
which is true, seeing how anything times 0 = 0.

[Roux!]

n / 0 = Undefined...

Any computer/calculator will tell you that...

Any mathematician will tell you that...

It's like time travel... IT CAN'T BE DONE!

Now, what Ace posted reminded me of this:

1/2 > 1/4
log(1/2) > log(1/4)
log(1/2) > log((1/2)^2)
log(1/2) > 2*log(1/2)

1 > 2

Anyone...?

[Urn]

dog = dog
1*dog=1*dog
0*dog=0*dog
0*dog=0*15*dog ; without zeros
dog=15*dog ; bullshit. !!not identical transformation!!


Someones sig:
'Cats have 4 legs, dogs have 4 legs, therefore, all dogs are cats'
Funny, isnt it?

PS. Ill think about logs.

[MasJ]

vagrantcharly, log for fractions with 0 as the characteristic, are inversely proportional to the fractions as they're negative.
Basically, log1/2 = log0.5 = -1.6990
And log1/4 = log0.25 = -1.3979
Evidently, log1/4 > log 1/2

So the first step in your series is incorrect.

Also, this can be verified the following way as well:
1/2 > 1/4
log 1/2 > log 1/4 [Not true ]
log1 - log2 > log1 - log4 [Now, subtracting log1 from both sides..]
- log2 > - log4
log2 < log4 [Sign change, inequality changes]
Which is true.. =D


One more thing log is an exponential function, so if you take:
e1/2 < e1/4
You ultimately end up with the same result, not true.

[Urn]

About the logs...
Base of the log must be >= 1
i mean

log(1/2) > 2*log(1/2)
is actually true. Think about it, with base=2 -1>-4
and

log(1/2) > 2*log(1/2) <=>
log(1/2) - 2*log(1/2) > 0 <=>
- log(1/2)> 0 <=>
log(1/2) < 0 ; with base >= 1 it is true, else the very first
; log(1/2) > log(1/4) will be wrong

Again not identical transformation
U cant here log(1/2) > 2*log(1/2) delete on log(1/2)